Monday, March 03, 2008

My photo is prettier than your paragraph!

Bizzell and Herzberg explain that Classical rhetoric does reemerge during the Enlightenment, evident primarily (and initially) in the "Ciceronian conception of rhetoric" (792). That is, the five canons were typically the foundation for the study of literature and criticism, writing and speaking, and a "respectable scientific theory of psychological persuasion" (792). I'll focus on the earlier years within this period, in spite of the significance of Smith, Campbell, Kames, Blair, and Sheridan in the eighteenth century--only because earlier work was more provocative, if less applicable to the modern study of rhetoric.

Rhetoric was attacked during this period by members of the British Royal Society, apparently through their spokesman, Thomas Sprat. However, B & H note that these new attacks did not lead to the removal of rhetoric from school instruction. Sprat and others went so far as to say that all tropes were ornamental, barriers to understanding and communication. Sprat says: “…all of the Studies of men, nothing may be sooner obtain’d, than this vicious abundance of Phrase, this trick of Metaphors, this volubility of Tongue, which makes so great a noise in the world” (796).

Bishop Wilkins, a founder of the Royal Society, seemed poised to erase the study of rhetoric, using Francis Bacon’s theories of replacing words with symbols. B & H explain that “The symbols were arbitrary and nonalphabetic but had phonetic value so that they could be pronounced” (797). This, of course, was a rather shortsighted endeavor. If reformists like Wilkins and Bacon truly believed more symbolic representations of Things and Ideas would lead to a more concise language, my guess is that they were rather naïve to the actual complex structures of Eastern languages like Chinese, which served as their model. (But, to be fair, I’ve never studied Chinese—a professor I worked closely with taught Mandarin, though, and I know it involved a great deal of time and effort. It is not so simple.)

However, perhaps we can take something from Wilkins and Sprat. We’ve all pushed through language that was difficult to interpret, and most of us would advocate for clear, concise prose.

That said, question #1: To counter the British Royal Society, how does the study of rhetoric lead to clear communication? What criticisms of dialectic forms might be valid, or invalid?

Question #2: Can we think of any examples where words (ideas) obscure actual objects? (See Locke, p. 798) To recycle a cliché, is a picture truly worth a thousand words, in some cases?

3 Comments:

At 2:35 PM, Blogger Natasha Luepke said...

Words obscure all the time, but I hate the idea that a picture is worth a thousand words.

Sight is privilaged over. . .well, what? One must see in order to read.

 
At 4:47 PM, Blogger Sarah Eileen said...

Ah yes, Natasha, but I'm going to get all Manguel-y here: what about the tradition that considered orality to be a form of reading? (Am I misinterpreting something here?) Manguel points out that it was Cicero (pretty late in the game, I might add!) who first (?) made a comment that "duh...you gotta read with your eyes."

And what about braille? That's a form of reading and writing.

 
At 10:35 PM, Blogger Tyler Lemmon said...

This isn't exactly what I imagined as a "strong" response to this post...

I was thinking a metaphor. This isn't a particularly strong example, but I thought it of interest when you brought up obscuring objects with words.

I overheard a man saying "There's Thomas, bearing Dionysos' shield tonight"

Dionysos' shield? Um, Dionysos's cup, Ares' shield? Perhaps they get a bit riled up when they hit the cup!

The point being, I had no idea what they were talking about at the time. The idea they were using was obscuring the object (until it was explained). In this case, the lack of knowledge concerning the Pantheon lead me to confusion. My wits are numbed by suffering a stay in the "hills" of Northeastern Oregon, so I'm done here.

 

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